I'm reading C*-Algebras by Jacques Dixmier. And in the proof of 2.9.5, it says
Let $A$ be a C*-algebra. If $f$ and $f'$ are two pure states which have the same kernel, then $f=f'$.
It should be obvious I guess, but I cannot understand why. It would be very helpful if anyone can give me some hint.
It has nothing to do with pure, not even with positivity. States extend uniquely to the unitization of $A$, so we may assume that $A$ is unital .
Let $x\in A$. Then $x-f(x)I\in \ker f=\ker f'$. Then $$ 0=f'(x-f(x)I)=f'(x)-f(x). $$ So all we are using is linearity and that $f(I)=f'(I)=1$. For two arbitrary functional we the same kernel, we would obtain $f'=c\,f$ for some constant $c$.
As for books, the canonical sources are Murphy's book, and Davidson's C$^*$-algebras by Example.