In $(\mathbb{Z}, \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{Z}), \mu)$,, where $\mu(A)=\operatorname{card}(A)$ for $A \subset \mathbb{Z}$, show that if $f, f_1, f_2,\dots : \mathbb{Z} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ then $(f_n)\rightarrow f$ in measure if and only if $(f_n)\rightarrow f$ uniformly.
The definition of convergence in measure is that, given $\varepsilon >0$, $$\lim_n \mu (\{x \in X: |f_n(x)-f(x)| \geq \varepsilon \}) = 0$$ Now I need to go from that to show that there is some $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|<\varepsilon$$ whenever $n \geq N$, using the fact that $\mu(A) = \operatorname{card}(A)$. Can someone give my a hint on how to proceed? Thank you in advance.
Hint: if $\lim a_n = 0$ then there exists $N$ such that for all $n\ge N$, $|a_n| < 1/2$. Also if $\text{card} (A) < 1/2$, then $A = \varnothing$.