While by definition the increments of a Brownian motion are independent, it is unclear to me whether (that implies that) the random variables $W_t$ and $W_s$ are independent for $t \neq s$. While these random variables have different density functions, they are defined on the same state space, and I am not sure whether they are independent.
2026-04-23 15:10:41.1776957041
Independence of Brownian motion
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Suppose $W_t$ and $W_s$ are independent for $t\neq s$. Then for $0\leq s<t$ we would have that $W_t$ is independent of $\mathcal{F}^W_s=\sigma(W_u\mid u\leq s)$. Now the martingale property of the Brownian motion yields $$ W_s=E[W_t\mid\mathcal{F}^W_s]=E[W_t]=0\quad\text{a.s.}, $$ which certainly isn't true.