Suppose that $X$ is a topological space equipped with the Borel $\sigma$-algebra $\mathcal{B}_X$.
Let $Y$ be a Borel subset of $X$, $Y\in \mathcal{B}_X$. In particular, $Y$ is a topological space with respect to the induced topology and therefore it has it's own Borel $\sigma$-algebra $\mathcal{B}_Y$.
My question: Let $A\in\mathcal{B}_X$, is it necessarily true that $A\cap Y\in \mathcal{B}_Y$?
Some observations: Clearly, $A\cap Y\in \mathcal{B}_X$. Also if $A$ is closed/ open, then $A\cap Y$ is closed/open and the claim is trivial.
Let$$\mathcal{B}=\left\{A\in\mathcal{B}_X\,\middle|\,A\cap Y\in\mathcal{B}_Y\right\}.$$What you want to know is whether or not the statement $\mathcal{B}_X=\mathcal{B}$ holds. But, as you know, every open subset of $X$ belongs to $\mathcal B$. And $\mathcal B$ is a $\sigma$-algebra. But $\mathcal{B}_X$ is the smallest $\sigma$-algebra which contains every open subset of $X$. Therefore, $\mathcal{B}\supset\mathcal{B}_X$ and so $\mathcal{B}=\mathcal{B}_X$.