Consider the following covering map $p_n: S^1 \to S^1, z \mapsto z^n$. Why is the subgroup of $\pi_1(S^1)$ induced by $p_n$ isomorphic to $n\mathbb{Z}$?
I know that $\pi_1(S^1) \cong \mathbb{Z}$ but how can we say anything about the induced subgroup $(p_n)_* \pi_1(S^1)?$
The subgroup $n \mathbb{Z} < \mathbb{Z} \cong \pi_1(S^1)$ is generated by $$\underbrace{[\gamma] \cdot \cdots \cdot [\gamma]}_n,$$ so one can show this directly by writing down a representative $\gamma$ of a generator of $\pi_1(S^1)$ (the identity will do) and then writing an explicit homotopy $$\underbrace{[\gamma] \cdot \cdots \cdot [\gamma]}_n \simeq [p_n(\gamma)] = [\gamma^n].$$