Does anynone have some hints to prove the following equation by induction for all $n\geq 1$ and $m\in\mathbb{Z} $
$$\sum_{j=0}^n{(-1)^j{n \choose j}\prod_{k=m+1}^{m+n-1}{(j+k)}}=0$$
use for induction step:
$$ {n-1 \choose k-1} + {n-1 \choose k} = {n \choose k} $$
Start with $$\sum_{j=0}^{n} (-1)^j \binom{n}{j} (1+x)^{j} = (-x)^n $$
By applying binomial theorem to $(1 - (1+x))^n$.
Now multiply both sides with $(1+x)^{m+n-1}$ and differentiate ... times, and set $x$ to ..., and show by induction that ...