Im wondering if this template for induction would be valid
show true for n=1
assume true for n=k
Attempt to show true for n=k+1
but at this point just replace n with k+1 and dont use the assumption that n=k.
show that the expression with n replaced by k+1 is equivalent to the one assumed for n=k.
Basically i have been asked to figure out if this is ok. My thoughts are
They assumed it for n=k ok
Then they showed it for n=k+1. Here i think what they have done is shown if true for k+1 then true for k.
But i guess it works the other way so i think its ok.
Any help would be appreciated, thanks
Never mind "attempt." You must do it. Show true for n=k+1 using your assumption for n=k, and you will be done.
This would be a waste of time. You would simply be making another assumption and proving nothing.
Tip: If you are stuck after proving true for 1, prove it true 2, 3 and 4 as well. This may help you to better understand the problem.