Given a relation R, R is said to be transitive if aRb ∧ bRc, then aRc.
The unequal relation (≠) is not transitive, for instance a≠b ∧ b≠c, then a≠c is an invalid consequent of the antecedent (a≠b ∧ b≠c).
For instance, 1 ≠ 2 and 2 ≠ 1, then it must be the case that 1 ≠ 1; however, this isn't the case because the relation ≠ is not transitive.
Since the ≠ relation is symmetric, (i.e. a≠b → b≠a), is a chain of inequality thus transitive?
a≠b≠c≠d≠..≠z, notice how each predicate variable is not isolated but chained together such that the property of symmetry can now come into play, is this chain transitive?
A somewhat naive application: For some reason I want to say terms, a, b, c, and d are mutually exclusive/disjoint, or unique, I could simply say "Let a, b, c, and d but unique" but I could also say "a≠b ∧ a≠c ∧ a≠d" ... ... "d≠a ∧ d≠b ∧ d≠c" but that is four expressions to write out formally, and 16 different inequalities for the four terms I have to account for.
If I wanted to write an expression without using English to specify uniqueness between the terms could I write a≠b≠c≠d as a chain exploiting ≠'s symmetrical property as shorthand?
NOTE: specifically I am stating the expression (a≠b≠c≠d) should not be considered equal, a substitution instance of, or equivalent in form to (a≠b, b≠c, c≠d)
$\neq$ is a binary relation. $a\neq b \neq c$ has no natural meaning apart from a slightly more compact way of writing $a\neq b$ and also $b\neq c$.
If you choose to define a 3-ary relation $\neq:(a,b,c)$ to denote $a\neq b$ and $b\neq c$ and $a\neq c$, that is your business. It is well-defined, although I would not recommend writing it as $a\neq b\neq c$, due to confusion with the binary relation $\neq$.
The symmetry of the binary relation $\neq$ has nothing to do with the 3-ary relation $\neq:(a,b,c)$ as defined above.