The ZFC axioms constitute an infinite set. So too do the PA axioms. Presumably, then, we need a metatheory before we can even define these axiom systems.
What is the usual metatheory?
Do we even need one?
The ZFC axioms constitute an infinite set. So too do the PA axioms. Presumably, then, we need a metatheory before we can even define these axiom systems.
What is the usual metatheory?
Do we even need one?
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We don't define ZFC as a set of axioms in some metatheory. This basically works like this: for every ZFC axiom, we write a sequence of symbols on a sheet of paper, and say that these are "theorems" of ZFC. For axiom schema, instead of a single axiom, we write the rule "if you take any formula (usually subject to some constraints), and substitute it for $\phi$ in this following axiom schema, it will constitute a theorem of ZFC". Then, we introduce some rules that allow us to infer new "theorems" of ZFC from the ones we already know (the axioms). Then we say that a "theorem" of ZFC is a sequence of symbols that can be derived from "axioms" by a finitely many applications of the inference rules.
There's no metatheory. There are no sets. It's only rewriting symbols on a sheet of paper according to some rules.
Now, you can interpret the statements and rules inside some other (or even the same) theory, but this is only a mirror of the term rewriting process.