From Hodge's biography of Turing:
He had found the infinite series for the "inverse tangent function", starting from the trigonometrical formula for $\tan\left(\frac{1}{2}x\right)$.*
The footnote states that he used no calculus and and also that "Perhaps the most remarkable thing was his seeing that such a series should exist at all."
So how do you get the infinite series for the inverse tangent from the half-angle formula for the tangent?
Thank you.
If we say $$ \arctan x=\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_nx^n $$ then using $\tan x\approx x$ for small $x$, we get $a_0=0$ and $a_1=1$.
Now using @r9m's insight (see comment under question) $$ 2\arctan x=\arctan {2x\over 1-x^2}=\sum a_n2^nx^n(1+x^2+x^4+x^6+\cdots)^n $$ For the $x^2$ term the factors are $$ 2a_2x^2=a_2(2x)^2 $$ thus $a_2=0$. Equating terms of $x^3$ gets $$ 2a_3x^3=a_3(2x)^3-2a_1x^3 $$ which gives us $a_3=-1/3$. You can go on and on with this to get $a_4$ and $a_5$ etc. Turing may have noticed a pattern, gone further and worked out a recurrence relation.