is anybody out there who can help with this little problem? I know the definition of inner product space, but I don't know how to do the proof of the exercise below.
Let $a,b,c$ be elements of an inner product space. Show that the following equality $$ \|a-c\|=\|a-b\|+\|c-b\| $$ holds iff there exists a real number $\mu\in[0,1]$ s.t. $b=\mu a+(1-\mu)c$.
Can you give an example that shows that this is not true in an arbitrary normed space?
In general, if $\|\cdot\|$ is induced by an inner product, then $\|x+y\|=\|x\|+\|y\|$ if and only if one of $x$ and $y$ is a nonnegative scalar multiple of the other.
Now let $x=a-b$ and $y=b-c$. The given condition implies that $\|x+y\|=\|x\|+\|y\|$. Therefore, one of $x$ and $y$ is a nonnegative scalar multiple of the other. Without loss of generality, let $y=kx$ for some $k\ge0$. Then $b-c=k(a-b)$. Hence $b=\frac{k}{k+1}a+\frac{1}{k+1}c$ and you may take $\mu=\frac{k}{k+1}$.
The case is different if the norm is not induced by an inner product. E.g. let $a=(1,0),\,b=(0,0)$ and $c=(0,1)$ in $\mathbb R^2$. We have $\|a-c\|_1=2=\|a-b\|_1+\|c-b\|_1$, but $b$ does not lie on the line segment delimited by $a$ and $c$.