Integrability as prerequisite in the Monotone Convergence Theorem

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I know the Monotone Convergence Theorem formulated as follow:

Let $(f)_{n \geq 1}$ be an sequence of measurable functions isotonely converging to a function $f$ that is numerically measurable. If either $f_n \geq 0 \,\, \forall n\geq1 \,\, \mu-a.e.$ $\textbf{or}$ $f_1 \in \mathcal{L^1}(\mu)$ with $\mu$ being a measure, are fulfilled, the follwing equation holds:

$\\\\ \int f d\mu = \int \lim_{n \to \infty} f_n d\mu =\lim_{n \to \infty}\int f_n d\mu $

I am wondering why it's possible to dispense the prerequisite of non-negativity if we have integrability of the function $f_1$. Can anyone help out?

One of my friends guessed that both conditions enable monotonicity of integrals which is needed to proof the theorem and are therefore valid.

Thanks in advance.

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Substract f1 on all sequence. Since f1 is L1 we have finite integral of f1