Is the following notation somehow wrong (or rather can it produce wrong results)? $$\int{f'(x)dx} = \int{df(x)} = f(x) + C$$ As far as I know this is pretty standard notation in many Russian textbooks. But I was made aware that this is not the case in western countries, and some people I talked with still believe it is wrong even after I explained it. Is there a reason to believe that this may produce wrong results? As far as I can tell it's simply $\frac{df}{dx} dx = df$. Relevant to this: wikipedia
2026-04-01 17:31:31.1775064691
Integral d notation
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Said people found an explanation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riemann%E2%80%93Stieltjes_integral