I've been learning the fundamental theorem of calculus. So, I can intuitively grasp that the derivative of the integral of a given function brings you back to that function. Is this also the case with the integral of the derivative? And if so, can you please give a intuition for why this is true? Thanks in advance
2026-04-13 16:11:08.1776096668
Integral of a derivative.
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The derivative and integral are almost inverse functions, so in turn, you are almost correct. For simple polynomials, one multiplies by the power and then removes 1 from the power, and the other adds 1 to the power and divide by the new power.
For more complex functions, you can consider it visually, or even compare it to physics. If you have a line (velocity), the gradient is the acceleration. If you derive this line to get the gradient, you know have the acceleration function. Now, if you have a flat line with no gradient (acceleration), and you integrate it, you will be left with a line with gradient for the velocity function.
This is because acceleration represents rate of change of distance relative to time, just like how gradient represents rate of change of y relative to x.
The only main difference is that integrating leaves you with an unknown constant $ C $. You may notice that if you differentiate $ f(x) = 2x^2 + 3x + 6 $, you're left with $ f'(x) = 4x + 3 $, and the $ 6 $ has absolutely no effect on the final answer. This is because, no matter where the line/curve is located in the y-axis, the gradient for the x co-ordinate remains the same. You require a co-ordinate from the original function in order to calculate $ C $.