Given a differential equation of the form
$ \ddot x = g $,
the solution of $x$ is given by
$x = \int\int g \cdot dt \cdot dt = \int\int g \cdot (dt)^2 $
However, were the first equation originally in Leibniz notation, the latter equation would read
$ x = \int\int d^2x = \int\int g \cdot (dt)^2 $
is this correct, or is this an abuse of the Leibniz notation? If its not, then it would mean that
$ \int\int d^2 x = x + C $
which is the focus of this question. I can only infer afterwards that
$ \int \int d^2 x = \int (\int dx) d(1) = \int (x+C) d(1) = (x+C) \int d(1) = (x+C) $
Once again, is this a misuse of the notation?
Liebniz notation is great, but the second derivative notation is actually generally written wrong. See the paper Extending the Algebraic Manipulability of Differentials.
A better way to look at it is to say that, assuming $g$ is constant:
$$ \frac{d\left(\frac{dx}{dt}\right)}{dt} = g $$
Multiplying both sides by $dt$ yields:
$$ d\left(\frac{dx}{dt}\right) = g\,dt$$
Integrating both sides gives:
$$ \int d\left(\frac{dx}{dt}\right) = \int g\,dt \\ \frac{dx}{dt} = gt + C $$ We can now multiply both sides by $dt$ again, and get: $$dx = gt\,dt + C\,dt \\ \int dx = \int gt\,dt + C\,dt \\ x = \frac{1}{2}gt^2 + Ct + D $$