If f(x) < g(x) for all $x \in [a,b]$, then can we say that inf(U(P,f)) will be less than inf(U(P,g))?
Why or why not is this correct ? Here U(P,f) represents upper riemann sum of f considered over partition P.
2026-04-03 20:48:17.1775249297
Integrals considering partitions
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Hint:
Note that $\inf_PU(P,f)$ is a lower bound for $U(P,g)$ and $\inf_PU(P,g)$ is the greatest lower bound