What if I had a piece-wise continuous function that was defined in the following way:
$$f(x) = \begin{cases} 2x-3 & x < 0 \\ 2x-3 & x > 0. \end{cases}$$
In my Calc I class we say that a function $f$ is integrable if it is continuous, or bounded with finitely many discontinuities (a piece-wise function). Does this apply to the function above (is the function above integrable, given that there's a hole at $x=0$, if I need to integrate from like $x=-5$ to $x=5$)?
In Calc I, you defined integrable to mean that the limit as the norm of a partition goes to zero of a Riemann sum of your function exists. For this function, any choice of sample points that samples $x = 0$ is undefined, making any Riemann sum that samples $x = 0$ be undefined. This behaviour persists as the partition is refined, so the resulting limit does not avoid the undefined-ness. The limit does not exist.
You may have also studied improper integrals (typically a Calc II topic). If so, you know to write your example integral as $$ \lim_{\ell \rightarrow 0^-} \int_{-5}^{\ell} f(x) \,\mathrm{d}x + \lim_{r \rightarrow 0^+} \int_{r}^{5} f(x) \,\mathrm{d}x \text{.} $$ Both of these integrals exist for each choice of $\ell$ and $r$ and both of these limits exist, so you end up with a value for your integral -- it just skips over the one point at $x = 0$.