I know that the integral of $\int \frac{1}{x \ln x}\, \mathrm{d}x$ can easily be obtained through substitution for $u=\ln x$ with the result of $\ln \ln x+C$. My question is if this answer (or an equivalent one) can be obtained via integration by parts, and if not why?
I have tried the substitutions $u = \frac{1}{\ln x}$ and $dv = \frac{1}{x}\,dx$ which yeilds $$ \int \frac{1}{x \ln x} \, \mathrm{d}x = 1 + \int \frac{1}{x \ln x} \, \mathrm{d}x$$ which is no good.
So when you do indefinite integration by parts, this equation that you got should actually be
$$ \int \frac{1}{x \ln(x)} \mathrm{d}x = 1 + \int \frac{1}{x \ln(x)} \mathrm{d}x + C$$
or in other words $\int \frac{1}{x \ln(x)}$ represent a family of functions instead of just one function.
Now you might ask, what if you are doing a definite integral?
in the definite integral case, $$ \int^b_a \frac{1}{x \ln(x)} \mathrm{d}x = 1\bigg|^b_a + \int^b_a \frac{1}{x \ln(x)} \mathrm{d}x $$ $$ \int^b_a \frac{1}{x \ln(x)} \mathrm{d}x = (1 - 1) + \int^b_a \frac{1}{x \ln(x)} \mathrm{d}x $$ $$ \int^b_a \frac{1}{x \ln(x)} \mathrm{d}x = \int^b_a \frac{1}{x \ln(x)} \mathrm{d}x $$
so nothing wrong there. To summarize you still want to use $u=ln(x)$ to solve the integral, but integration by parts didn't fail you.