I have a question about equation 6 in this paper.
Simplifying somewhat, the authors state the following
$$\int_0^{\infty} e^{-tL} dt = L^{-1}$$
$L$ here is a graph laplacian and therefore is a matrix. (Leave aside for the moment that $L$ is singular and thus make the above equation meaningless.)
To derive the equation, I first tried expanding $e^{-tL}$ into a series and integrating the individual terms in the hope that something clean comes out: $$\int_0^{\infty} e^{-tL} dt = \sum_{i=0}^\infty \frac{(-L)^i}{i!}\int_0^{\infty} t^i dt$$ which lead nowhere for me.
So I tried the alternative tack of just treating $L$ as if it were scalar. In that case, the first equation is obviously true.
My question is, can I treat the matrix $L$ in the exponent as if it were a scalar and just integrate it?
(Bonus question, since $L$ is a graph laplacian and therefore singular, why are the authors inverting it when they should know better?)
If you look at the definition of the Riemann integral, you will see that you don't make much use of properties of the codomain of your function (only that it is a vector space, and that you can take limits in it). So you can define the Riemann integral for continuous functions $\mathbb{R}\to M_n(\mathbb{C})$ with no issues.
The fundamental Theorem of Calculus still holds and $(-L^{-1}e^{-tL})'=e^{-tL}$. Then $$ \int_0^ne^{-tL}\,dt=\left.-L^{-1}e^{-tL}\right|_0^n=-L^{-1}e^{-nL}+L^{-1}\xrightarrow{n\to\infty}L^{-1}. $$
When $L$ is singular, the assertion makes no sense, and I have no idea what the authors mean. Consider $$ L=\begin{bmatrix}0&1\\ 0&0\end{bmatrix}. $$ Then $L^2=0$, so $$ e^{-tL}=I-tL. $$ Claiming that $$ \int_0^\infty(I-tL)\,dt $$ is a matrix is an interesting statement.
Added: after looking at the claim from Will that $L$ is positive definite, the argument becomes much simpler. Because in this case we can write $$ L=\sum_{k=1}^n\lambda_kP_k, $$ where the $\lambda_k$ are the eigenvalues of $L$ and the $P_k$ are pairwise orthogonal projections of rank one. Then $$ e^{-tL}=\sum_{k=1}^ne^{-t\lambda_k}P_k, $$ and so $$ \int_0^\infty e^{-tL}\,dt=\sum_{k=1}^n\left(\int_0^\infty e^{-t\lambda_k}\,dt\right)\;P_k =\sum_{k=1}^n\lambda_k^{-1}\;P_k=L^{-1}. $$