What intrinsic relationship is there between (riemann) integration and Euclidean geometry that enables one to get area under the curve as a integral? This can only be related to the definition of riemann integral as a limit of sums of areas of rectangles; or is it something else.
2026-04-07 01:47:43.1775526463
Integration and Euclidean geometry
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The Riemann integral is defined in such a way (through a limit of sums of areas of rectangles, as you wrote) that the area under the curve of a non-negative function is equal to the integral of that function.