Is it possible to perform the differentiation under the integral sign for an indefinite integral (anti-derivative)? that is,
if $f(s) = \int F(s,t) dt $
then, is
$f'(s) = \int (d/ds(F(s,t)))dt$
where all the integrations are indefinite (without any limits)?
It doesn't make much sense, because $\int F(s,t) dt $ is not a function of $s$ as it has infinitely many values for each $s$.