We learned in my linear algebra course last semester that two vectors spaces $U$ and $V$ over some field $F$ are said to be ${\it isomorphic}$ if there exists a bijection (invertible linear map) between them.
Consider the vector spaces $\mathbb{C}$ and $\mathbb{R}^2$. If we consider $\mathbb{C}$ as
$$ \mathbb{C} = \left\{ a + bi \ | \ a, b \in \mathbb{R} \right\}, $$
then it seems that $\mathbb{C}$ is naturally isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^2$. That is, we can define the following map $\phi: \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{R}^2$:
$$ \phi(a + bi) = \left(\begin{array}{cc} a \\ b \end{array}\right) $$
which is clearly invertible and therefore a bijection between the two. However, it seems weird that $\mathbb{C} \cong \mathbb{R}^2$ just based on intuition. Can anyone give me a better way to think about this isomorphism?
We build the complex numbers $\mathbb C$ by taking the real numbers $\mathbb R$ and adding on the imaginary unit $i$, satisfying $i^2=-1$. But as a vector space, $\mathbb C$ has no multiplicative structure; after all, the vector space axioms say nothing about multiplying vectors, only about adding them. It no longer matters that $i^2=-1$ because we don't know how to multiply two vectors in $\mathbb C$. In that sense $i$ is an arbitrary placeholder -- we could just as well call it $x$, for example, and talk about the vector space of polynomials of the form $a+bx$.