Question: I am wondering if someone can explain to me the difference between these two concepts (or provide an illustration).
My thoughts I've been thinking about it and all I can come up with -- but not strongly convince myself of -- is that the difference might lie in the fact that the function can treat the join/meet of two points $x,y$ very different than it treats $x,y$. That it, i feel like supermodularity puts some restrictions on the upper/lower bounds that increasing differences doesn't.
Definitions: Let $(S,\leq)$ be a lattice and $g$ be a real valued function on $S$. Define $g$ to be supermodular on $S$ if for all $x,y \in S$ $$g(x\wedge y) + g(x\vee y) \geq g(x) + g(y)$$
Let $S$ and $T$ be lattices and $g:S\times T\to \mathbb{R}$. Define $g$ to have increasing differences in $(x,y)$ if for all $y\geq y'$ and $x\geq x'$, $$g(x,y)-g(x,y') \geq g(x',y)-g(x',y')$$
Supermodularity implies increasing differences. Increasing differences and supermodularity in each dimension implies supermodularity.
To be more precise, let me quote versions of two results from Topkis (1998). Fix a collection of lattices $\{X_i\}_{i\in I}$, and let $X$ be a sublattice of $\times_{i\in I}X_i$. $f$ maps $X$ into $\mathbb R$. In this setting, the definition of supermodularity is exactly the same, while the definition of increasing differences generalises naturally.
The first result is Topkis' theorem 2.6.1.
The next result is theorem 2.6.2.
Here is an example of a function that exhibits increasing differences but not supermodularity, also taken from Topkis.
Let $X_i = \{0,1 \}$ for $i=1,2,\ldots$, and $x=(x_1,x_2,\ldots) \in \times_{i=1}^\infty X_i$. Define $f$ so that $f(x)=1$ if $x_i = 1$ for an infinite set of indices $i$ and $f(x)=0$ otherwise. Since $f$ is constant with respect to any finite set of components of $x$, $f$ has increasing differences.
Let $x^\prime$ be such that $x_i^\prime = 1$ for $i$ odd, and $x_i^\prime = 0$ otherwise. Similarly, define $x^{\prime\prime}$ such that $x_i^{\prime\prime}=1$ for $i$ even and $x_i^{\prime\prime}=0$ for $i$ odd.
Then,
$$ f\left(x^\prime\right) + f\left(x^{\prime\prime}\right)= 2 > 1 = f\left(x^\prime \vee x^{\prime\prime}\right) + f\left(x^\prime \wedge x^{\prime\prime}\right), $$
so $f$ is not supermodular.
Admittedly, I don't find this example very enlightening. However, this might be because, as far as I can tell, for most practical purposes, supermodularity and increasing differences are essentially the same property.