I already know that a false statement implies anything. Because I ask only for intuition, please do NOT prove this or use truth tables (which I already understand).
Source: p 333, A Concise Introduction to Logic (12 Ed, 2014), by Patrick J. Hurley
The truth table shows that the biconditional is true when its two components have the same truth value and that otherwise it is false. These results are required by the fact that $P ≡ Q$ is simply a shorter way of writing $(P ⊃ Q) \wedge (Q ⊃ P)$. If P and Q are either both true or both false, then $P ⊃ Q$ and $Q ⊃ P$ are both true, making their conjunction true. ...
I already understand the above, but am seeking an even more intuitive explanation.
In law, it is sometimes the case that a contract is binding if, and only if, both parties signed it. So, if $P$ stands for "the contract is binding" and $Q$ stands for "Both parties signed the contract", then $P\iff Q$ stands for "the contract is binding if, and only if, both parties signed it". Now, when would the claim $P\iff Q$ be true in a particular situation? If both parties signed the contract and the contract is binding, then $P\iff Q$ is true. If not both parties signed it, nor is the contract binding, then $P\iff Q$ is still true. In any other case it is false.