This one is throwing me for a loop. My gut tells me that this isn't intuitionistically valid, although it is classically valid, since you have
$$\forall x\,P(x)\implies\exists x\,P(x)$$ \begin{align} (\exists x\,P(x)\to\exists x\,Q(x))\implies&(\forall x\,P(x)\to\exists x\,Q(x))\\ \iff&(\exists x\,\neg P(x)\vee\exists x\,Q(x))\\ \iff&\exists x\,(\neg P(x)\vee Q(x))\\ \iff&\exists x\,(P(x)\to Q(x)). \end{align}
But the Kripke semantics seem to work out, since the provability of the statement in a world $u$ under the arbitrary assignment $e$ is defined as
$$u\Vdash((\exists x P(x)\to\exists x Q(x))\to\exists x(P(x)\to Q(x))[e]$$ $$\forall w\ge u\,(\forall t\ge w\,((t\Vdash\exists x P(x)[e])\to(t\Vdash\exists x Q(x)[e]))\to(w\Vdash\exists x(P(x)\to Q(x))[e]))$$ $$\forall w\ge u\,(\forall t\ge w\,(\exists x\in M_t\,P(x)\to\exists x\in M_t\,Q(x))\to\exists x\in M_w\,(P(x)\to Q(x)))$$
and setting $t=w$ on the left yields $$(\exists x\in M_w\,P(x)\to\exists x\in M_w\,Q(x))\to\exists x\in M_w\,(P(x)\to Q(x))$$ which (since this expression is in classical logic) is the same theorem as proven above.
Regarding proof avenues, the only simplification I can see turns the original expression into $\forall x\,(P(x)\to\exists x\,Q(x))\to\exists x\,(P(x)\to Q(x))$, after which none of the quantifiers are in a good position to admit additional simplification.
The evaluation of the Kripke model was done incorrectly. The last line was
$$\forall w\ge u\,(\forall t\ge w\,(\exists x\in M_t\,P_t(x)\to\exists x\in M_t\,Q_t(x))\to\exists x\in M_w\,(P_w(x)\to Q_w(x)))$$
when it should be
$$\forall w\ge u\,(\forall t\ge w\,(\exists x\in M_t\,P_t(x)\to\exists x\in M_t\,Q_t(x))\to\exists x\in M_w\,\forall t\ge w\,(P_t(x)\to Q_t(x)))$$
because implication is evaluated in all reachable worlds. Since the functions $P_w(x)$ on different worlds $w$ are truth-preserving but not falsity-preserving (i.e. they satisfy $u\le w\to(P_u(x)\to P_w(x))$, not $u\le w\to(P_u(x)\leftrightarrow P_w(x))$), $\forall t\ge w\,(P_t(x)\to Q_t(x))$ and $(P_w(x)\to Q_w(x))$ are not equivalent. From this fact it is not hard to come up with a counterexample:
There are two frames, $w$ and $u$ with $w<u$.
In $w$ the universe is $\{\mathtt a\}$ and all predicates are false.
In $u$ the universe is $\{\mathtt a,\mathtt b\}$, and $P(\mathtt a)$ and $Q(\mathtt b)$ are true.
Then both frames satisfy $(\exists x\,P(x)\to\exists x\,Q(x))$. But $\exists x\,(P(x)\to Q(x))$ is false in $w$, because it can only be true if $P(\mathtt a)\to Q(\mathtt a)$ is true in all worlds accessible from $w$, and it is false in $u$. Thus the original statement is not intuitionistically valid.