I have come across this formula - $$\langle f(t) \rangle = \frac{1}{T}\int_0^T f(t) \, \mathrm{d}t$$
For finding averages in many places...which is proved using definite integral as limit of a sum etc...However I am not able to get its intuitive explanation , which can make this result look obvious(or at least justify it logically)... Any Help is appreciated.