If X is space and A is a non-empty proper open subset that is both open and closed, then is the set B = X - A both closed and open simply because the definition of a closed set is that its complement is open?
I understand it if I just follow the definition, but intuitively it doesn't make much sense, since it doesn't mention the openness/closeness of X and I don't see how the closed sets fit into the definition of a topology.
This question actually came up when I read the definition of a connected space, that is:
I can use the line of reason above to understand the definition of a connected space (i.e. the complement of B is A, which is both open and closed, hence B is both closed and open, hence A and B constitute a separation of X and X is not connected), but other than that it doesn't provide much more information.
Also, I'm new to topology, so everytime I need to determine whether a certain set is closed or open, I have the habit of thinking of the "Venn diagram", and the notion of an open set in $\Re^2$ (i.e. whether I can draw a ball around every the point of the set that fits inside the set). Clearly this doesn't apply in lots of cases. Is there a better way to think about these concepts?

One way to understand connected spaces better is the "Main Theorem on Connected Space", which says:
This is a generalization of the Intermediate Value Theorem (just let $X,Y$ be $\mathbb{R}$ with the euclidean topology). So, connected spaces are just "where the IVT holds".
This reasoning can even help when looking at disconnected spaces. The Subspace Topology is defined as:
Now, if $S$ is chosen to be open, it turns out that $\tau_S$ is just all of the open sets in $\tau$ that are subsets of $S$. The subspace topology has one property I'll single out for this:
So:
Given a connected space $X$, we "have the IVT" already by the Main Theorem on Connected Spaces.
Given a disconnected space $X$, we have that for any non-trivial clopen set $S$ (with no proper non-trivial clopen subsets) that $f\mid_S$ "satisfies the IVT", where $f\mid_S:(S,\tau_S)\to Y$. This is by applying the quoted result on subspaces, noticing that this space is now connected, and then applying the main theorem on connectedness.
Of course, this doesn't help with all disconnected spaces (consider the discrete topology on any set, then we get that "the IVT holds if we restrict functions to a single point domain", which is quite disinteresting.