It is well-known that if we have a equivalence relation in $\mathbb{R}^2$:$(z_1,z_2)\sim (z_1',z_2')$ iff
$$\begin{pmatrix}
z_1'\\ z_2' \\
\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}
1&0\\ 0&1 \\
\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}
z_1\\ z_2 \\
\end{pmatrix}+\begin{pmatrix}
a_1\\ a_2 \\
\end{pmatrix}$$
with nonzero constants $a_1,a_2\in\mathbb{R}$.Intuitively we get a torus.
Now let us make a small modification:$(z_1,z_2)\sim (z_1',z_2')$ iff
$$\begin{pmatrix}
z_1'\\ z_2' \\
\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}
1&\lambda\\ 0&1 \\
\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}
z_1\\ z_2 \\
\end{pmatrix}+\begin{pmatrix}
a_1\\ a_2 \\
\end{pmatrix}$$
with nonzero constants $a_1,a_2,\lambda\in\mathbb{R}$.Intuitively what is it?
Does your answer still hold when we replace $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{C}$?
Can you help me?Thank you very much!
2026-03-27 16:22:00.1774628520
Intuitively what is it if making a modification of a torus?
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