For intuition, I reference objects. Imagine making a dessert with: $a$ as apples and $c$ as chestnuts.
Question. How and why is
$\dfrac{a}{c} \qquad (3) \quad = \quad\dfrac{\color{red}{1}}{\dfrac{c}{a}} \qquad (4) \qquad ?$
I ask only about intuition; please omit formal arguments and proofs (eg: Intuition is not generated by the explanation that rationalising (4)'s denominator produces (3)).
The fraction $\frac{a}c$ is the number of apples per chestnut, and $\frac{c}a$ is the number of chestnuts per apple.
Suppose that you have $x$ chestnuts per apple, where $x$ can be any positive real number. No matter what $x$ is, each one of those $x$ chestnuts must be getting $\frac1x$ of an apple, so there are $\frac1x$ apples per chestnut.
Thus, in the particular case that $x=\frac{c}a$, it must be the case that
$$\frac{a}c=\frac1{\frac{c}a}\;.$$