I need to determine functions $P,Q\in C^2(\mathbb R^2)$ provided that the line integral \begin{equation} I=\int_LP(x+\alpha,y+\beta)dx+Q(x+\alpha,y+\beta)dy \end{equation} over closed curve $L$ doesn't depend on $\alpha$ and $\beta$.
I am confused because it seems to me that for any two functions $P,Q\in C^2(\mathbb R^2)$ such that $\frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial P}{\partial y}$ integral $I$ doesn't depend on $\alpha,\beta$ because of Green theorem.
What am I missing?
Differentiating under the integral sign tells us that (omitting the arguments $(x+alpha,y+\beta)$ for convenience) \begin{align*} 0 &= \frac{\partial}{\partial\alpha}\int_L P(x+\alpha,y+\beta)\,dx + Q(x+\alpha,y+\beta)\,dy =\int_L \frac{\partial P}{\partial x}dx + \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}dy \quad\text{and} \\ 0 &= \frac{\partial}{\partial\beta}\int_L P(x+\alpha,y+\beta)\,dx + Q(x+\alpha,y+\beta)\,dy =\int_L \frac{\partial P}{\partial y}dx + \frac{\partial Q}{\partial y}dy \end{align*} Now, letting $\Omega$ be the plane region bounded by $L$, we deduce from Green's Theorem that $$\int_\Omega \Big(\frac{\partial^2 Q}{\partial x^2} - \frac{\partial^2 P}{\partial y\partial x}\Big)\,dx\,dy = 0 = \int_\Omega \Big(\frac{\partial^2 Q}{\partial x\partial y} - \frac{\partial^2 P}{\partial y^2}\Big)\,dx\,dy = 0.$$ Certainly any functions $P$ and $Q$ making both these integrands identically $0$ will satisfy the given hypotheses. Without knowing $L$ specifically, that's all I can say.