Let $V=\mathbb{R}^{n}$ and $T\,:V\to V$ be defined by $Tv=Av$ where $A\in M_{n}(\mathbb{R})$ is an orthogonal matrix.
My lecture wrote that if $W\subset V$ is a subspace of $V$ then if $W$ is $A$ invariant then $W^{\perp}$ is also $A$ invariant.
What I do know is that if $W$ is $A$ invariant then $W^{\perp}$ is also $A^*=A^{t}$ invariant, but I could not deduce from this that it is also $A$ invariant.
Is this 'fact' true ? I couldn't prove it (I tried writing a proof similar to the case I know, using inner products and failed), help is appreciated!
If $$\forall\,w\in W\,\,,\,Aw=w'\in W\Longrightarrow A^{-1}w'=A^{-1}Aw=w\in W$$
The above is enough since we know $\,A\,$ is bijective (why?), so for any $\,w'\in W\,$ there always exists $\,w\in W\,\,\,s.t.\,\,\,Aw=w'\,$
Thus, $\,W\,\,is\,\,A-\,$ invariant iff it is $\,A^{-1}-\,$ invariant, and now use Marc's answer.