Given finite field, is it true that any invariant subspace of its Frobenius automorphism is a subfield?
Firstly, I know that $F_{p^k}$ is a subfield of $F_{p^n}$ if and only if $k$ divides $n$.
For the second, it seems that we shall use that if finite field is of characteristic $p$ then any element satisfies $x^p=x$.
However, I can't proceed to the final answer from this remarks. Can anyone explain me is it truth or not and why?
$\newcommand{\F}{\mathbb{F}}$I understand the question to be
The answer is negative.
Let $E = \F_{p^{6}}$.
Then $U = \F_{p^{2}}$, $W = \F_{p^{3}}$ are subfields of $E$, and thus $\F_{p}$-subspaces of $E$.
Then $V = U + W$ is an $\F_{p}$-subspace of $E$, which has dimension $2 + 3 - 1 = 4$ over $\F_{p}$, and thus order $p^{4}$, so that it is not a subfield of $E$.
However $V$ is invariant under the Frobenius automorphism, as $U$ and $W$ are.