Let $dt$ be the reduced Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb R,$ and $L^1$ and $L^2$ be the associated function spaces. There is an isometry $$f\mapsto \hat f:L^1\cap L^2\to L^2$$ given by $$\hat f(t)=\int f(x)e^{-ixt}dx.$$
Furthermore, since $L^1\cap L^2$ is dense in $L^2$, the map extends to an isometry from all of $L^2$ onto $L^2.$
The problem is to prove that if $f\in L^2$ and $\hat f\in L^1$ then the usual inversion formula holds a.e.: $$f(x)=\int \hat f(t)e^{ixt}dt.$$
We have, with $\chi_n$ the characteristic function on $[-n,n],\ \chi_n\cdot \hat f\to \hat f$ and since $\hat f\in L^1,$ the Dominated Convergence theorem applies to show that $$\lim \int \chi_n(t)\cdot \hat f(t)e^{ixt}dt=\int \hat f(t)e^{ixt}dt.$$ Thus, we have to show that $f_n(x):=\int \chi_n(t)\cdot \hat f(t)e^{ixt}dt\to f(x).$
The crux of this seems to be showing that $f_n(x)=\chi_n(x)\cdot f(x).$
Using the isometry, I have been able to show that $f_n\to f$ in the $L^2$ norm, so there is an a.e. pointwise convergent subsequence, but this seems like a dead end.
If it turned out that $f_n$ was the inverse transform of $\chi_n\cdot \hat f,$ that would be enough also, but I do not see any reason for this to be true. The map $f\to \hat f$ maps $L^1\cap L^2$ onto a dense subspace of $L^2$, but there is no reason to suppose that it is $L^1\cap L^2$, or is there?
If $f\in L^2$, then $\hat{f}\in L^2$, and $$ L^2-\lim_n \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-n}^{n}\hat{f}(s)e^{isx}ds = f. $$ So there is a subsequence in $n$ so that the inverse integral over $[-n,n]$ converges pointwise a.e. to $f$. However, the pointwise inversion integral exists for all $x$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$ because $\hat{f}\in L^1$. Therefore, $$ f(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\hat{f}(s)e^{isx}ds,\;\; a.e. x\in\mathbb{R}. $$ If you knew $f$ were continuous everywhere, then equality would hold everywhere because a.e. equality for two continuous functions on $\mathbb{R}$ implies equality everywhere.