How do you determine the inverse function $f^{-1}: \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}^3$ of
$f: \mathbb{R}^3 \to \mathbb{R}^2 , f(x,y,z) = (xy-z^2, x+z) $ ?
Or to put it into a bigger context:
I have to show that $M := \{(x,y,z) \in \mathbb{R}^3 | xy-z^2 = 1 \text{ and } x+z = 2 \} $ is a submanifold of $\mathbb{R}^3$. The professor's approach is to show that $(1,2)$ is a regular value of f (from above). Because $M = f^{-1}(1,2) $ and because of the Submersion Theorem, $M$ is a submanifold.
Now, how does he know that $M = f^{-1}(1,2) $ ?
Thanks in advance for your help!
In order to be invertible, the function must be one-to-one. However $f$ sends both $(2,2,-2)$ and $(3,3,-3)$ to $(0,0)$. Thus it is not one-to-one, and not invertible. What would $f^{-1}(0,0)$ be?