I need to find the inverse of these two functions if they exist:
$$f_1 = x-⌊x⌋, 1\leq x<2, 0\leq f_1<1$$ and $$f_2 = (x-⌊x⌋)^2, 1\leq x<2, 0\leq f_2<1$$
I worked through it and I think they are both bijective functions, but I am not exactly sure, and Having trouble finding the actual inverse function for both these two. Do these two have inverse functions and how do you find them?
Hint: if $1\leq x < 2$, then $\lfloor x\rfloor$ is always the same number for all those $x$'s. If you write this number instead of $\lfloor x \rfloor$ in your formulas, you'll get two easy-to-invert functions.