I know that the result of the inverse laplace transform of the following is
$$\mathcal{L}^{-1}\left\{ \frac{1}{s^4}\right\} = \frac{1}{6}\cdot t^3$$
However I just can't seem to figure out where the fraction comes from. $$\frac{1}{6}$$
Can anyone explain to me in short? I got the feeling that I'm missing out on something really stupid.. Thanks in advance.
$\mathcal{L}(t^3)=\frac{3!}{s^4}=\frac{6}{s^4}$ however we just have a $\frac{1}{s^4}$ so we need to get rid of that 6, to do this we divide by 6. So therefore $\mathcal{L}^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{s^4}\right )=\frac{t^3}{6}$