I have a problem with this transform. I know that using this theorem (see the theroem) I can get the answer, and i have the resolution. But I don't understand why the put a $-1$ in the integral.
After know this they do:
Transform to integral I don't know why they put the -1 in that integral.
See that you have to apply the Inverse Laplace of $1/(s^2(s-1))$ and then plug that into the integral. So we have that with partial fractions:
$$\frac{1}{s^2(s-1)}=\frac{1}{s-1}-\frac{1}{s^2}-\frac 1s $$
So, $$\mathcal{L}^{-1}\left[\frac{1}{s^2(s-1)}\right ](t) =e^{t}-t-1, \space t>0$$