Inverse Laplace transform of $\frac{e^{-\pi s}}{s^2 + 2s+ 2}$
$s^2 + 2s + 2 = (s+1)^2 + 1$
$F(s) = \frac{1}{(s+1)^2 + 1} $
$f(t) = \mathcal{L}^{-1} \frac {1}{(s + 1)^2 + 1} = e^{-t} \sin t $
$f(t- \pi) = e^{-(t-\pi)} \sin (t- \pi) $
so answer is $ e^{\pi - t} \sin (t-\pi) U (t- \pi) $
Why am I wrong ?
You should notice that the Laplace transform of $\sin\omega_0 t$ and $\sin\omega_0 t u(t)$ is different. The Laplace transform of $\sin \omega_0 t$ is $${\pi\over i}(\delta(\omega-\omega_0)-\delta(\omega+\omega_0))$$which means that the region of convergence of this Laplace transform is the imaginary-line and the Laplace transfom of $\sin \omega_0 t u(t)$ is $$\dfrac{\omega_0}{s^2+\omega_0^2}$$both can be derived using the definition