I'm trying to understand what's the inverse Laplace transform of $\frac{s}{s+1}$.
I found this answer, which is quite clear and concludes that it's $δ(t)-e^{-t}$, which sounds right given the reasoning.
But I also found this proof, which calculate the inverse of $\frac{1}{s+1}$, then derives it and adds initial condition; with this proof, assuming $a=b=1$, the reverse transform is $1-e^{-t}$.
I'm not quite sure about what's different between these two conclusions, and I can't find anything wrong with any of them, so I was wondering how those solutions fits together, and if there is any error or approssimation in those proofs.
The main issue with the second ``solution" is the following:
We have that \begin{align} \mathcal{L}^{-1}\{sF(s)-f(0)\}(t) = f'(t) \end{align} but \begin{align} \mathcal{L}^{-1}\{sF(s)\}(t) \neq f'(t)+f(0) \end{align} since \begin{align} \mathcal{L}^{-1}\{1\}(t)= \delta(t). \end{align} This means that \begin{align} \mathcal{L}^{-1}\{sF(s)\}(t) = f'(t)+\mathcal{L}^{-1}\{f(0)\}= f'(t)+f(0)\delta(t). \end{align}