I want to prove that this function $f(x)=\frac{x}{\cos x}$ from $(-1,1)$ to $\mathbb R$ is bijective? whether or not has an inverse differentiable? I know that this function is injective and surjective so is bijective, but I am not able to find its inverse. thanks.
2026-04-14 15:02:47.1776178967
inverse of a function and its differentiable
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