I've usually used that given a square matrix $A$ with determinant $\det(A)\neq0$, then its inverse $A^{-1}$ is the matrix that meets:
$$A^{-1}A=\mathbb{I}$$
and
$$AA^{-1}=\mathbb{I}.$$
However, I've found in several sources, including Wikipedia that if $A$ is finite and square, then:
$$A^{-1}A=\mathbb{I} \Longrightarrow AA^{-1}=\mathbb{I}.$$
I'm struggling to find a proof. Does anybody know one?
If $f, \, g \; : \; \mathbb{R}^{n} \; \longrightarrow \; \mathbb{R}^{n}$ are two linear maps such that : $f \circ g = \mathrm{Id}$ then, it implies that :
To prove that $f$ and $g$ are invertible, you only need to prove that $\mathrm{ker}(f) = \lbrace 0 \rbrace$ and $\mathrm{ker}(g)=\lbrace 0 \rbrace$. Let $x \in \mathrm{ker}(g)$. Then, $(f \circ g)(x) = x$ and $(f \circ g)(x) = f(0)=0$. So, $x=0$ and it follows that $\mathrm{ker}(g) = \lbrace 0 \rbrace$ and $g$ is invertible. You can prove as well that $\mathrm{ker}(f) = \lbrace 0 \rbrace$ (so $f$ is invertible).
Let $x \in \mathbb{R}^{n}$. Since $g$ is invertible, there exist $u \in \mathbb{R}^{n}$ such that $x = g(u)$. Therefore, $(g \circ f)(x) = g\big( (f \circ g)(u) \big) = g(u) = x$. As a consequence, $g \circ f = \mathrm{Id}$.