Why does the definition of an irreducible element require us to be in an integral domain?
Why can we not define an irreducible element exactly the same in a commutative ring that is not an integral domain?
We have that an element is irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of two non-unit elements. Unit elements are well defined and unique in a commutative ring that is not an integral domain, so I cannot see that being the problem.
I've proven a proposition of my own design (probably well known and elementary, an definitely trivial). I used irreducible elements, but otherwise nothing that requires me to move from a commutative ring to an integral domain. Do irreducible elements really require me to be in an integral domain?
In an integral domain, you have the following four equivalent definitions for a nonzero nonunit $a$ to be irreducible.
However, in commutative rings in general, we have (4) $\Rightarrow$ (3) $\Rightarrow$ (2) $\Rightarrow$ (1), and none of the implications reverse. The literature for factorization in commutative rings with zero divisors thus has four different non-equivalent definitions of "irreducible". (The above statements define "irreducible", "strongly irreducible", "m-irreducible", and "very strongly irreducible", respectively.) See Factorization in Commutative Rings with Zero Divisors by Anderson and Valdes-Leon for more information.