I'm wondering if the following statement is true :
Let $ K $ be a compact space, $ X $ a topological space and $ \forall x $ in $K$, $L(x)$ a compact subspace of $ X $. Then $ \cup_{x \in K} L(x) $ is a compact subspace of X.
I understand that the statement is false if $K$ is not supposed to be compact and true if $K$ is finite. (two cases that are already discussed in other topics).
If it is false, can it become true when adding some hypothesis ? In particular I'm interested in the case where L would be continuous. But to be accurate this means to define a topology on the set of all subspaces (or compact subspaces) of X...
Does someone have a proof of this statement (eventually in a more specific case : $X$ a metric space or a normed vector space) or a counterexample ?
Your conjecture is false.
Let K = X = [0,1]. For all x in K, let L(x) = {x} if x is rational and {0} otherwise.
K is compact and every L(x) is a compact subset of X.
$ \cup_{x \in K} L(x) $ is the set of rationals in [0,1] which is not compact.
To make your conjecture true, require K to be finite.
Notice that there are countable K counter examples.
For L(x) to be continuous, the Hausdorff metric could be useful.