Is $(a, \infty]$ a Borel set?

152 Views Asked by At

Is interval $(a, \infty]$ a Borel set ?

I hear that if $U$ is written as union, intersection, or subtraction of open sets, $U$ is called a Borel set.

I wonder whether $(a, \infty]$ is a Borel set or not.

$\cup_{n=1}^{\infty} (a, n]$ isn't equal to $(a, \infty]$, and I tried to write $(a, \infty]$ as union, intersection, or subtraction of open sets but I couldn't.

How can I write $(a, \infty]$, or isn't $(a, \infty]$ a Borel set ?

1

There are 1 best solutions below

0
On BEST ANSWER

In which space are you working? If you are working in the extended real line with the order topology, then $(a, \infty]$ is open by definition of order topology, hence a Borel set.