If $D$ is a manifold, and $G$ is a group that acts freely on $D$, then is it true that $D/G$ is still a manifold? Why? And why is it important that the action of $G$ on $D$ is free?
2026-03-27 16:21:41.1774628501
On
On
Is a manifold modulo a free action still a manifold?
577 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
3
There are 3 best solutions below
0
On
Represent $S^1$ as the quotient of $\mathbb{R}$ by $t(x) =x+1$. Let $ i$ be an irrational number, $f(x) =x+i$ induces a free action on $S^1$ and the quotient space is not a manifold. The quotient topology is not Hausdorff.
0
On
The group $\mathbb Z^2 = \mathbb Z \oplus \mathbb Z$ acts on the real line $\mathbb R$ by the formula $(m,n) \cdot t = t + m + n \sqrt{2}$. Every orbit of this action is dense in the real line, and yet there are uncountably many orbits. So the quotient is not a manifold, it is not even Hausdorff.
This is standard, see e.g. Lee's book Introduction to smooth manifolds. All three assumptions on the action are necessary.