For all $n \in \Bbb N$ consider the set $A_n = \left \{x \in \Bbb R\ |\ \left (\cos x \right )^n + \left (\sin x \right )^n = 1 \right \}.$ Is $A_n$ uncountanble for all $n \in \Bbb N\ $?
If $n = 2$ then $A_n = \Bbb R$ which is uncountable. How do I prove it for $n \neq 2\ $?
Any help in this regard will be highly appreciated. Thanks in advance.
EDIT $:$ This question is motivated from option $(2)$ of the original question.

$\sin x+\cos x=1$ implies that $1=1^{2}=\sin^{2}(x)+\cos^{2}(x)+2\sin (x) \cos (x)$ which gives $\sin (2x)=0$. Hence $2x$ is a an integer multiple of $\pi$. Hence $A_1$ is countable.
Using Complex Analysis it is easy to see that $A_n$ is uncoutable only for $n=2$. If $A_n$ is uncountable it has a limit point. A Theorem in Complex Analysis shows that we must have $\cos^{n} x+\sin^{n}x=1$ for all $x$. Put $x=\frac {\pi} 4$ to see that $n=2$.
Real analytic proof for $n$ even: On $A_n$ we have $t^{m}+(1-t)^{m}=1$ wheer $m=\frac n 2$ and $t=\sin ^{2}x$. This equation is a polynomial equation in $t$ and it has only finitely many roots. Hence there are only finite number of possible values for $\sin ^{2}x$ and each of then give only countably many values of $x$.