My question is basically in the title.
Given a monoid $M$, consider the integral monoid ring $R$ it defines. Any subring $S$ of it is also a subgroup of the free abelian group $(R,+)$, hence free abelian. So it is generated over the integers by some set, say $N$. I would like to be able to say that then $N$ is necessarily a submonoid of $M$ and hence $S$ is a integral monoid ring generated by $N$, but I don't think it's true. Can't think of a specific counterexample though.
Any help appreciated.
Take $\mathbb{Z}[x]$, so $M = \mathbb{N}$. Let $S = \mathbb{Z}[2x,x^2] \cong \mathbb{Z}[y,z]/(y^2-4z)$ be the subring.
If $S = \mathbb{Z}[N]$ for a monoid $N$, then its base change to $\mathbb{F}_2$ and to $\mathbb{Q}$ are both monoid rings and have the same number of generators. However, $S \otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} \mathbb{F}_2 \cong \mathbb{F}_2[y,z]/(y^2-4z) = \mathbb{F}_2[y,z]/(y^2)$, which has 2 generators, while $S \otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} \mathbb{Q} \cong \mathbb{Q}[y]$, which has 1 generator.