Is $((A \wedge B) \rightarrow (C \wedge D))$ the same as $(A \wedge B \rightarrow C \wedge D)$?

Question

I'm currently learning propositional logic and was wondering if I could rewrite the first statement as second (just less paranthesis)? Could it be interpreted as a totally different statement or it is fine as it is?

Answer 1

Consider when $A$ is false but $B$, $C$, and $D$ are true.