In econometrics, by Hayashi, they defined the error vector of n observations in a $ (n \times K)$ regression funcntion as:
$\epsilon = \begin{bmatrix}\epsilon_{1} \\\epsilon_{2} \\\vdots \\\epsilon_{n}\end{bmatrix}$, where $\epsilon_{i}$ is the ith observation's error term,
and K-dimension x vector of the ith observation as, $x_{i} = \begin{bmatrix}x_{i1} \\x_{i2} \\\vdots \\x_{ik}\end{bmatrix}$
The book says that the cross moment of two random variables E[xy] is zero means that these two random variables are orthogonal. It's not hard to see the point using [0,1] and [1,0] to check their cross product for orthogonality.
But in the book it has a formula for strict exogeneity assumption:
$E[x_{j}\epsilon_{i}] = \begin{bmatrix}x_{j1}\epsilon_{i} \\x_{j2}\epsilon_{i} \\\vdots \\x_{jk}\epsilon_{i}\end{bmatrix} = 0_{(K\times1)}$
So, here the $\epsilon_{i}$ is an element of the $\epsilon$ vector, and the cross moment for a $(k\times1)$ vector and an element of a vector, which are orthogonal, is a $(k\times1)$ 0 vector. My question is that, what is a cross moment of two random variables, is it the expected value of the inner product? And shall I view the $\epsilon_{i}$ as a scalar, or $(1\times1)$ vector, or $(1\times1)$ matrix?



Vectors are (in this context) just matrices which have one row or column.
$\def\e{\epsilon}\e_i$ is a scalar, as it is an entry of a matrix, $\e$.
The cross moment of two random variables $X,Y$ is defined as the expected value of their product, where the product being used depends on context.
If $X$ and $Y$ are scalars, the product is usual multiplication.
If $X$ is a scalar and $Y$ is a matrix, the product is scalar multiplication.
If $X$ is and $Y$ are both matrices, then the product is matrix multiplication.
In answer to your second question, there is one special case where the cross moment is the expected value of the inner product.