Consider two lotteries $N$ and $M$. Agent $i$ is risk-averse and prefers $N$. Agent $j$ is risk-neutral and prefers $M$. Would any risk-loving agent $k$ also prefer $M$? That is, would $j$ and $k$ have the same preferences in this scenario?
My attempt:
For example, I can easily show that a risk averse agent can behave as if it is risk natural. I can show this on indifference curves by using the equal marginal rate of substitution.
Then I consider and follow the same way to demonstrate a risk lover agent behave as if risk natural agent by using MRS. But I cannot get a result that does make sense.
But I know and assume that I need to use MRS and indifference curve.
No, not necessarily
Let's suppose both lotteries have possible outcomes of $1,2,4,8$:
Let's suppose the utilities for an outcome $x$ are
Then I think the players value the lotteries with a counter-intuitive pattern: